Surgery Quiz 30 Quiz InstructionsThis quiz consists of 20 multiple-choice questions.You will be awarded 5 marks for each correct answer. Question 1: A 20 kg dog is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis. The dog's observed plasma bicarbonate level is 14 mEq/L, and the clinician desires to bring it up to a normal level of 22 mEq/L. Using the standard formula for base deficit, how much bicarbonate (in mEq) is required for the treatment of this dog?48 mEq24 mEq16 mEq32 mEq Question 2: What is the normal gastric volume capacity of a dog?5–10 ml/kg b.wt.10–20 ml/kg b.wt.25–40 ml/kg b.wt.50–100 ml/kg b.wt. Question 3: Which breed of dog has a well-documented high clinical incidence of cardiomyopathy, requiring careful pre-operative cardiovascular assessment?German ShepherdGreat DaneGolden RetrieverBoxer Question 4: During pre-operative evaluation of the urinary system, which urine specific gravity range serves as an early indicator of renal failure before any significant elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is observed?1.001–1.0051.008–1.0121.015–1.0201.025–1.035 Question 5: Evaluate the following statements regarding the preparation of the surgical site and hair removal:I. Hair removal should ideally be completed 24 hours before surgery to allow the skin to recover.II. A general guideline is to clip 20 cm on each side of the planned incision.III. Shaving causes less tissue trauma than clipping.IV. Open wounds should be covered with saline-moistened gauze during clipping to prevent contamination.Which of these statements are correct?I and III onlyII and IV onlyI, II, and IV onlyII, III, and IV only Question 6: Match the bacteria listed in Column I with their correct classification as canine skin flora in Column II:Column I:1. Staphylococcus epidermidis2. Staphylococcus aureus3. Corynebacterium spp.4. Clostridium spp.Column II:A. Resident skin floraB. Transient skin flora (secondary invaders)Select the correct matching combination:1-A, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-B1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-A Question 7: Read the assertion and reason regarding physical sterilization:Assertion (A): Sodium carbonate (2%) or sodium hydroxide (0.1%) is added to the water used for autoclaving instruments.Reason (R): These alkaline additives lower the boiling point of water and make bacterial spores more heat-resistant by neutralizing the pH.Select the correct option:Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.(A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. Question 8: Which bacterial spore is used as a biological indicator to test the effectiveness of steam sterilization in an autoclave?Bacillus subtilis var. globigiiBacillus stearothermophilusClostridium tetaniClostridium sporogenes Question 9: In dry heat sterilization using a hot air oven, which temperature-time combination is recommended for effective sterilization of glassware or petroleum jelly?121ºC for 30 minutes140ºC for 120 minutes160ºC for 60 minutes100ºC for 15 minutes Question 10: Which of the following statements regarding chemical sterilization using Ethylene Oxide is/are correct?I. It destroys microorganisms by the process of alkylation.II. The minimum relative humidity required for its lethal action is 33%, with an optimum of around 40%.III. Spores of Bacillus subtilis var. globigii are used as its sterilization indicators.IV. Polyvinyl chloride items previously sterilized by radiation can be safely resterilized with ethylene oxide without any toxic side effects.Select the correct option:I, II, and III onlyI and III onlyII and IV onlyI, II, III, and IV Question 11: When using cold sterilization by soaking instruments in disinfectant solutions, which chemical should be added at a concentration of 4 g/L to prevent the rusting of surgical instruments?Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3)Sodium Nitrite (NaNO2)Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH)Sodium Chloride (NaCl) Question 12: Which of the following antiseptic scrubbing solutions is specifically noted for having poor sporicidal activity, rendering it ineffective against Clostridium species?GlutaraldehydePovidone iodineChlorhexidine gluconateFormaldehyde Question 13: Match the surgical items/equipment in Column I with their risk classification categories in Column II based on the infection risk described in the text:Column I:1. Surgical packs and drains2. Endotracheal tubes and vaginal speculums3. Face masks and rebreathing bagsColumn II:A. Critical itemsB. Semi-critical itemsC. Non-critical itemsSelect the correct matched sequence:1-A, 2-B, 3-C1-B, 2-A, 3-C1-A, 2-C, 3-B1-C, 2-B, 3-A Question 14: Read the assertion and reason below:Assertion (A): A 70% concentration of ethyl or isopropyl alcohol exhibits higher germicidal efficacy than absolute (100%) alcohol.Reason (R): The presence of water in 70% alcohol facilitates the denaturation and coagulation of bacterial proteins.Select the correct option:Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.(A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct. Question 15: Which suture material is a monofilament synthetic absorbable polymer that fulfills most qualities of an ideal suture material and is absorbed by hydrolysis within 180 days?Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)Polyglycolic acid (Dexon)Polydioxanone (PDS)Polyglecaprone 25 (Monocryl) Question 16: Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) is a braided synthetic absorbable suture. How is it absorbed in the body, and what environment accelerates this process?Enzymatic digestion, accelerated in acidic environmentsHydrolysis, accelerated in alkaline environmentsPhagocytosis, accelerated in neutral environmentsHydrolysis, accelerated in acidic environments Question 17: Polyglecaprone 25 (Monocryl) is a synthetic absorbable monofilament. Because of its rapid loss of tensile strength (retaining only 20-30% at two weeks), in which type of surgery is its use contraindicated?Bladder surgeryGastrointestinal surgerySkin closureSubcutaneous tissue closure Question 18: In veterinary surgery, which of the following suture patterns is specifically categorized as an inverting seromucosal suture used for hollow organs?Cushing's suture patternLembert's suture patternConnell's suture patternHalsted's suture pattern Question 19: Match the surgical procedure with the most appropriate suture pattern or technique described in the text:I. Tendon repair (flat tendon) -> Kessler or locking loop patternII. Herniorrhaphy (hernial ring) -> Mayo mattress or overlapping suturesIII. Urinary bladder repair -> Bell's suture patternIV. Vaginal prolapse -> Buhner's suture patternWhich of these matches are correct?I and II onlyIII and IV onlyI, II, and IV onlyI, II, III, and IV Question 20: What is the defining characteristic of the Gambee suture pattern used in intestinal surgery?It is a continuous inverting pattern that completely avoids entering the lumen.It is a simple interrupted pattern that penetrates the lumen and passes through the mucosa and submucosa, with the knot tied outside the lumen.It is an everted mattress pattern that is placed parallel to the incision line.It is a double-row Lembert pattern that creates maximum inversion.
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